I don't fully understand the logic behind the concept of the simultaneous buyer's and seller's agent.
My logic is this: Say that a seller's agent is representing a client at say 6% remuneration. You, the buyer, find the property without a buyer's agent and the property meets your expectations and you make purchase. All respective parties receive what was expected; the seller-currency for selling, the buyer-the property itself, the agent-6% commission.
My question is this: How would this scenario play differently had the seller's agent been your buyer's agent as well?
My reasoning in asking the question is because I'm under the impression that the seller's agent would still receive 6% commission either way, am I wrong, is there a cap on how much an agent can receive or can the agent potentially earn more, in this case 12%???